1 Timothy 4:8 For bodily exercise profiteth little: but godliness is profitable unto all things, having promise of the life that now is, and of that which is to come. [kjv]
η γαρ σωματικη γυμνασια προς ολιγον εστιν ωφελιμος η δε ευσεβεια προς παντα ωφελιμος εστιν επαγγελιαν εχουσα ζωης της νυν και της μελλουσης [gnt]
Is "
bodily" "
exercise" "
profitable"? What is the
objective function? None is provided but one might be inferred.
Is "
godliness" "
profitable"? What is the
objective function? This is added at the end as a "
promise".
The reasoning is similar to that attributed to Aristotle and pointed out as a deception of "
begging the question" or "
assuming the conclusion". In the case of this verse, what Paul (the assumed writer) is claiming is "
begging the question" in that he is assuming an objective function (for the latter claim) and then using it to support the claim of "
profitable". Logically, then, this verse does not really say anything important.
John 13:16 Verily, verily, I say unto you, The servant is not greater than his lord; neither he that is sent greater than he that sent him. [kjv]
αμην αμην λεγω υμιν ουκ εστιν δουλος μειζων του κυριου αυτου ουδε αποστολος μειζων του πεμψαντος αυτον [gnt]
Philippians 2:6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: [kjv]
ος εν μορφη θεου υπαρχων ουχ αρπαγμον ηγησατο το ειναι ισα θεω [gnt]
… forma … rapinam … aequalem … [v]
Arianism denied that Jesus was actually equal to God but rather, was born at a given point in time and therefore, was subordinate to God the Father.
